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Abstract

Take this quiz for a quick review of your knowledge about respiratory topics.

 

 

1. The number of lobes in the right lung is

 

a. two.

 

b. three.

 

c. four.

 

d. six.

 

 

2. During gas exchange, oxygen and carbon dioxide diffusion occurs in the

 

a. venules.

 

b. alveoli.

 

c. red blood cells (RBCs).

 

d. bronchioles.

 

 

3. Oxygen passes through the alveoli into the bloodstream and binds with hemoglobin to form

 

a. carbaminohemoglobin.

 

b. carboxyhemoglobin.

 

c. oxyhemoglobin.

 

d. myoglobin.

 

 

4. The percussion sound usually heard over most of the lungs is

 

a. dullness.

 

b. resonance.

 

c. tympany.

 

d. hyperresonance.

 

 

5. When you auscultate the lower lobes of a healthy patient's lungs, you'd expect to hear

 

a. tracheal breath sounds.

 

b. bronchial breath sounds.

 

c. vesicular breath sounds.

 

d. adventitious breath sounds.

 

 

6. A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis shows a pH less than 7.35, HCO3- greater than 26 mEq/L, and a PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg. He's diaphoretic, tachycardic, and restless. The condition he probably has is

 

a. respiratory alkalosis.

 

b. respiratory acidosis.

 

c. metabolic alkalosis.

 

d. metabolic acidosis.

 

 

7. When suctioning a patient, you should

 

a. apply suction intermittently as you insert the catheter.

 

b. suction for longer than 10 seconds at a time.

 

c. oxygenate the patient's lungs before and after suctioning.

 

d. apply suction continuously as you insert the catheter.

 

 

8. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted through

 

a. inhalation of infected aerosolized droplets.

 

b. contact with blood.

 

c. the fecal-oral route.

 

d. skin-to-skin contact.

 

 

9. A patient with clinically active TB is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which findingsbestindicate the effectiveness of drug therapy?

 

a. Cavities are no longer evident on chest X-ray.

 

b. Tuberculin skin test is negative.

 

c. The patient is afebrile and no longer coughing.

 

d. The subsequent sputum culture is negative.

 

 

10. Which of these characteristicsbestdescribes croup?

 

a. inflammation of the palatine tonsils

 

b. a highly contagious respiratory infection

 

c. infection of the supraglottic area with involvement of the epiglottis

 

d. clinical syndrome of laryngitis and laryngotracheobronchitis

 

 

11. Which of these signs is most characteristic in a child with croup?

 

a. barking cough

 

b. fever

 

c. bradycardia

 

d. rash

 

 

12. Intrinsic (nonatopic) asthma can be caused by

 

a. animal dander.

 

b. pollen.

 

c. mold or household dust.

 

d. anxiety.

 

 

13. The most common cause of chronic bronchitis is

 

a. heart failure.

 

b. cigarette smoking.

 

c. reaction to antibiotic therapy.

 

d. dehydration.

 

 

14. Increased bronchial, pancreatic, and other mucus gland secretions, as well as obstructed glandular ducts, characterize

 

a. chronic bronchitis.

 

b. emphysema.

 

c. cystic fibrosis.

 

d. asthma.

 

 

15. In sleep apnea, the absence of breathing leads to

 

a. decreased arterial CO2 and lower pH levels.

 

b. increased arterial CO2 and lower pH levels.

 

c. increased arterial CO2 and higher pH levels.

 

d. decreased arterial CO2 and higher pH levels.

 

 

16. When assessing a patient with atelectasis, you'd expect to find

 

a. bradycardia.

 

b. hypertension.

 

c. peripheral edema.

 

d. dyspnea, depending on the degree of lung involvement.

 

 

17. Of the following patients, the onemost likelyto develop idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is

 

a. a 2-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections.

 

b. a 35-year-old woman with a history of pneumonia twice in 1 year.

 

c. a 52-year-old man with a history of smoking.

 

d. an 84-year-old man who never smoked.

 

 

18. The greatest risk factor for developing bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) is

 

a. premature birth.

 

b. maternal smoking.

 

c. familial history of asthma.

 

d. tachypnea.

 

 

19. Polycythemia commonly occurs with cor pulmonale in response to

 

a. hypertension.

 

b. dehydration.

 

c. hypercarbia.

 

d. hypoxemia.

 

 

20. Typically, the first sign or symptom of a pulmonary embolism (PE) is

 

a. hypothermia.

 

b. bradycardia.

 

c. dyspnea.

 

d. green-tinged sputum.

 

 

21. After a chest tube has been intentionally or accidentally removed, you need to

 

a. immediately apply an airtight, sterile petroleum dressing over the site.

 

b. increase the rate of I.V. fluid administration due to the risk of hemorrhage.

 

c. administer oxygen at 4 L/minute via nasal cannula and notify respiratory therapy.

 

d. reinsert the chest tube into the open space and notify the patient's health care provider.

 

 

22. Inhalation burn injuries are usually painless because

 

a. there aren't any sensory nerves in airway mucosa.

 

b. the patient immediately becomes unconscious after the injury.

 

c. the tracheobronchial tree is insensitive to pain.

 

d. the burn damages the nerves and the patient can't sense the pain.

 

 

23. The preferred treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning is

 

a. administration of 100% humidified oxygen.

 

b. sedation.

 

c. analgesia.

 

d. corticosteroid therapy.

 

 

24. The dominant sign or symptom of laryngeal cancer is

 

a. a lump in the throat.

 

b. hoarseness for longer than 3 weeks.

 

c. burning in the throat when drinking citrus juice or a hot liquid.

 

d. enlarged cervical lymph nodes.

 

1. b; 2. b; 3. c; 4. b; 5. c; 6. b; 7. c; 8. a; 9. d; 10. d; 11. a; 12. d; 13. b; 14. c; 15. b; 16. d; 17. c; 18. a; 19. d; 20. c; 21. a; 22. d; 23. a; 24. b

 

Source: Respiratory Care Made Incredibly Easy!!, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2004.